All,
Im not a regular poster here…though I do read a few posts.
My question to you all is am I being unrealistic?
Proposition:
I have a decent collection, with a few hot watches but they don’t get wrist time. I can afford quiet easily to buy some very hot watches on the grey market but I am uncomfortable with that type of "investment" and its kind of hard for SHIMBO to think Im just wasting money in a collection of more safe queens.
So I decided to try and dabble in a part-ex from a watch merchant (not AD or large reseller). This keeps the collection status quo, SHIMBO wont care (does not see the extra cash exchanged) and I get something I know I will wear for a model I don’t wear that often.
So the PX is a popular SS Sports Rolex with a couple of years of Warranty left and immaculate Full-Set Safe Queen condition.
For,
A very nice (to me) but not hugely popular discontinued Patek at the £18k range.
The Rolex – though 3 years old was offered at +£1k above what I paid from an AD which is respectable. However, to buy said same model in the Merchants store today be +£4k more than the offer.
Now we all have to eat – especially watch merchants (this one has for the record done nothing wrong, improper or anything – in fact nothing but cordial and friendly exchange of information).
So the question is would you all consider this as a reasonable offer?
Is the buy/sell spread reasonable in context of a PX which would cost me an additional £11k (with no discount offered on the purchase of the PP).
Are my expectations too high in the world of watch upgrading or is the Merchant double-dipping on the margins here?
My view is that I am bringing a mint hot watch to a Merchant and taking one from him which is less popular (plus extra cash) i.e. Im making his life easier and my life much poorer. If the Rolex was at top dollar (sell) and the PP undiscounted or the Rolex at bid with a discounted PP, I’d be good.
Views?
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